Post by ShivaTD on Aug 28, 2013 9:41:22 GMT
Aug 27, 2013 22:35:53 GMT JP5 said:
It's going to be pretty difficult to prove that Texas' maps are discriminatory since the federal court in San Antonio actually drew the map that was to be used....and WAS used....in the 2012 election. A few months later....in Texas' first Special Legislation Session, the legislature ADOPTED THAT FEDERLLY-DRAWN map to use from now on.....and abandoned the one that had been criticized. A federal court has a mandate to provide immediate redress to a grievance by a plaintiff if the court finds in favor of the plaintiff. It doesn't necessarily represent the "perfect" solution but instead an immediate and acceptable resolution to the dispute at the time. It also only represents a resolution to the dispute by the plaintiff and not a resolution to all possible disputes. The fact is that in an immediate action based upon a complaint by a plaintiff may not represent the preferable long term solution.
The Texas legislature could well wish to permanently adopt the rezoning that the judge imposed but that did not eliminate the requirement to submit that permanent rezoning planning for federal preapproval in future elections. The federal government could, and probably would, have issues to address that were not addressed by a single lawsuit.
When it comes to the voter ID law here is the flaw in the logic of many. The purpose of government should be to encourage and enable lawful citizens to vote as opposed to placing barriers in their way. The Texas voter ID law is based upon the principle that it's better for 1,000,000 lawful citizens to be denied the Right to Vote than it is for one non-citizen to vote.