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Post by pjohns1873 on Aug 19, 2015 23:25:09 GMT
It is obvious that you are not neutral as regarding Joe Arpaio: You view him as a "racist cop"; so you have already convicted him, in your mind. Yes, I do, indeed, "support the [US] Constitution"; including all the "explicit provisions contained in it." (It does not say that non-citizens should be allowed to vote; this is simply a matter--once again--of your tortured logic.) And your phobia--that is really what it amounts to--as regarding "WASP Male Supremacy," is duly noted. (Apparently, you believe that this was rectified by the election of a Catholic--JFK--and the election of the engineer of the Great Society--LBJ. The former is a matter of utter indifference to me; the latter amounts to a lurch to the left, on domestic issues.)
It was the federal court that determined Joe Arpaio is a racist. I merely acknowledge that fact.
Based upon the US Constitution the US census counts "all people" residing in the United States and it includes citizens and non-citizens. The US Constitution also requires that members of Congress be elected by the "People" of the United States. We cannot have two different definitions of the "People" under the Constitution where non-citizens are included in one definition but excluded in the other definition. The US Constitution is explicit when it uses the word "citizen" (a subgroup of the "People") and "People" that includes everyone subjected to the authority of our government. When it comes to the election of members of Congress the Constitution explicitly establishes that the "people" and not the "citizens" of the nation are to vote for those offices.
Why are you opposed to the "people" electing members of Congress when the US Constitution explicitly states that members of Congress are to be elected by the "people" of the United States?
No, the election of JFK and LBJ did not end the ideology of WASP Male Supremacy in America. What it did do, after Nixon abandoned the civil rights movement that Republicans had supported in the 1950's and 1960's, was to shift that ideology from the Democratic Party to the Republican Party. All we need to do to track this is to follow the political career of David Duke, a former Grand Wizard of the KKK, that switched from the Democratic Party to the Republican Party in 1980.
BTW Did you read that the federal appeals unanimously court struck down the voter ID law in Texas because it was a Jim Crow voting law that discriminated against minority voters.
I cannot believe that you are still talking about David Duke--decades after he made the news--and that you imply that he was warmly embraced by the Republican Party. I am sure that I cannot change your mind as concerning Joe Arpaio. But a "federal court"--as concerning either this, or the Texas voter-ID law, or anything else--really does not impress me. I do not believe that the Founders intended for non-citizens to vote in federal elections. And I am not aware of any court that has found to the contrary. |
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Post by ShivaTD on Aug 27, 2015 12:47:34 GMT
I cannot believe that you are still talking about David Duke--decades after he made the news--and that you imply that he was warmly embraced by the Republican Party. I am sure that I cannot change your mind as concerning Joe Arpaio. But a "federal court"--as concerning either this, or the Texas voter-ID law, or anything else--really does not impress me. I do not believe that the Founders intended for non-citizens to vote in federal elections. And I am not aware of any court that has found to the contrary.
When referring to history it's sort of necessary to refer to the history makers of the time.
How strange that you aren't impressed by federal court decisions but then cite the fact that voting by non-citizens has never been adjudicated in our federal court system. You imply that the framers of the US Constitution were incompetent or ignorant when they used the word "people" (citizens and non-citizens) as opposed to "citizen" (a subgroup of the People) when established the criteria for the election of member of the House and Senate and that is a very bad assumption. They knew exactly what they were saying when they wrote Article I and the 17th Amendment and they knew fully well that the "people" included both citizens and non-citizens.
Remember that it wasn't until after the ratification of the 17th Amendment, that explicitly established Senators were to be elected by the People (citizens and non-citizens), before the federal law denied the right to vote for non-citizens. The States had already started doing this in the late 19th Century based on the fact that the voting of non-citizens resulted in the diminishing of WASP Male Supremacy because the majority of immigrants were no longer from England. We went from 40 states and territories protecting the right to vote for immigrant (non-citizens) to all of the states and the federal government denying the non-citizens their right to vote and behind it all was the retention of WASP Male Supremacy in the United States that still exists today.
There is only one logical explanation why immigrants, that have adopted the United States and are permanent residents on the pathway to citizenship, that are living by our laws and paying taxes, and that are even represented in our government based upon the US census every ten years, are denied the Right to Vote. It's the fact that they're not WASP's and this is supported by history. When the immigrant population was overwhelmingly from England the Right to Vote for non-citizens was the norm (at least if the person was a white man) but when the demographics of the immigrant population changed we changed the laws to prohibit the non-citizens from voting in our elections.
The reason so many people don't what non-citizen, permanent residents on the pathway to citizenship, to vote today is because they're mostly Hispanic and it would undermine the historical political reality that the United States has always been a nation of WASP Male Supremacy pre-dating even the founding of the United States.
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Post by maria263898 on Mar 15, 2021 11:05:01 GMT
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